Mrs Jones is 60 years old and attends the GP surgery. She gives a one month history of bilateral ankle oedema and shortness of breath on exertion. You examine her and suspect she may have heart failure and request a serum NT-pro-BNP level. This level comes back as 2100pg/ml. Her symptoms are stable and she is haemodynamically stable.

Which of the following statements about her initial management is most correct?