Mrs Smith is 35 years old and presents to the GP with a one month history of intermittent bilateral ankle swelling and foot pain. The pain settles with Ibuprofen and is worse after prolonged rest. There is no shortness of breath, orthopnoea, or cough. Past medical history includes Hypertension which is well controlled on Ramipril. On examination she there is no ankle or foot swelling, and a positive metacarpophalangeal squeeze test is demonstrated. Her observations are stable.
Which of the following steps is the next most appropriate step in her management?
