Daniel is a 37 year old accountant who presents with a 2 day history of fevers, increased urinary frequency, dysuria and perineal pain. Past medical history is unremarkable and he is married stating no risk of any sexually transmitted infections. He is allergic to quinolone antibiotics. Daniel denies any haematuria, urethral discharge, back pain, weight loss or erectile problems.
On examination his observations are stable except for a temperature of 37.7°C. Urine dipstick is positive for nitrites and leucocytes. Abdominal examination is normal but rectal examination reveals a tender, swollen prostate gland.
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?