Sarah is 31 years old and presents with a 7 month history of postcoital bleeding. She is married, in a stable relationship and currently has a progesterone implant as her method of contraception for the past 18 months. She has had the contraceptive progesterone implant in situ since the birth of her first child 2 years ago. When it was first inserted she had some spotting in the first 3 months but then has since become amenorrhoeic. She denies any abnormal vaginal discharge or any urinary symptoms. She is married and denies any risk of sexually transmitted infections. She has had a reminder to book for her cervical smear which was due 2 months ago. In the past her cervical smears have been normal. Bimanual and speculum examinations are unremarkable.

What is the most appropriate management option for her?

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