A 37 year old female presents with a 6 month history of postcoital bleeding. She is married, in a stable relationship and currently has a progesterone implant as her method of contraception for the past 18 months. Since using the implant she had some spotting in the first 3 months but since then has become amenorrhoeic. She denies any abnormal vaginal discharge or any urinary symptoms. She admits to not having had a cervical smear test for the past 10 years. Bimanual and speculum examinations are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate management needed for this patient?